MN580 FNP II – Primary Care of Children and Adolescents Health
Unit 4 Quiz
Question 1 0 / 2 points
Usual treatment option for a child with hepatitis A includes:
Question options:
1)
interferon alpha.
2)
ribavirin.
3)
acyclovir.
4)
supportive care.
Question 2 2 / 2 points
Rectal bleeding associated with anal fissure is usually described by the patient as:
Question options:
1)
drops of blood noticed when wiping.
2)
dark brown to black in color and mixed in with normal-appearing stool.
3)
a large amount of brisk red bleeding.
4)
significant blood clots and mucus mixed with stool.
Question 3 2 / 2 points
Which of the following do you expect to find in an examination of a 2-week-old infant?
Question options:
1)
A visual preference for the human face.
2)
A preference for low-pitched voices.
3)
Indifference to the cry of other neonates.
4)
Poorly developed sense of smell.
Question 4 0 / 2 points
Problems after tetanus immunization typically include:
Question options:
1)
localized reaction at site of injection.
2)
myalgia and malaise.
3)
low-grade fever.
4)
diffuse rash.
Question 5 0 / 2 points
Treatment options in acute and recurrent allergic conjunctivitis include all of the following except:
Question options:
1)
cromolyn ophthalmic drops.
2)
oral antihistamines.
3)
ophthalmological antihistamines.
4)
corticosteroid ophthalmic drops.
Question 6 2 / 2 points
The most common causative organism of bronchiolitis is:
Question options:
1)
haemophilus influenzae.
2)
parainfluenza virus.
3)
respiratory syncytial virus.
4)
coxsackievirus.
Question 7 1 / 2 points
Which of the following must be present for the diagnosis of AOM? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1)
Bulging of the tympanic membrane (TM).
2)
TM retraction.
3)
Otalgia.
4)
Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.
Question 8 2 / 2 points
When advising a patient about the influenza nasal spray vaccine, the NP considers the following:
Question options:
1)
Its use is acceptable during pregnancy.
2)
Its use is limited to children younger than 6 years.
3)
It contains live, attenuated virus.
4)
This is the preferred method of influenza protection in the presence of airway disease.
Question 9 2 / 2 points
Which of the following is the most prudent first-line treatment choice for an otherwise well toddler with acute otitis media (AOM) who requires antimicrobial therapy?
Question options:
1)
Ceftibuten.
2)
Amoxicillin.
3)
Cefuroxime.
4)
Azithromycin.
Question 10 2 / 2 points
First-line treatment for uncomplicated hordeolum is:
Question options:
1)
topical corticosteroid.
2)
warm compresses to the affected area.
3)
incision and drainage.
4)
oral antimicrobial therapy.
Question 11 2 / 2 points
Anterior epistaxis is usually caused by:
Question options:
1)
hypertension.
2)
bleeding disorders.
3)
localized nasal mucosa trauma.
4)
a foreign body.
Question 12 0 / 2 points
Which of the following is one of the more common sources of hepatitis A infection in the United States?
Question options:
1)
Receiving blood products.
2)
Ingestion of raw shellfish.
3)
Drinking municipally sourced tap water drinking water.
4)
Exposure to fecally contaminated food.
Question 13 0 / 2 points
A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is about to receive injectable influenza vaccine. His parents and he should be advised that:
Question options:
1)
the vaccine is more than 90% effective in preventing influenza.
2)
use of the vaccine is contraindicated during antibiotic therapy.
3)
localized immunization reactions are common.
4)
a short, intense, flu-like syndrome typically occurs after immunization.
Question 14 0 / 2 points
Rebound tenderness is best described as abdominal pain that worsens with:
Question options:
1)
light palpation at the site of the discomfort.
2)
release of deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.
3)
palpation on the contralateral side of the abdomen.
4)
deep palpation at the site of the discomfort.
Question 15 2 / 2 points
An 18-year-old man presents with periumbilical pain, vomiting, and abdominal cramping over the past 48 hours. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and laboratory analysis shows the presence of bandemia and a total WBC of 28,000 mm3. To support the diagnosis of acute appendicitis with suspected appendiceal rupture, you consider obtaining the following abdominal imaging study:
Question options:
1)
Magnetic resonance image (MRI).
2)
Computed tomography (CT) scan.
3)
Ultrasound.
4)
Flat plate.
Question 16 1 / 2 points
Risk factors for dyslipidemia in children include which of the following? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1)
Blood pressure at the 70th to 80th percentile for age.
2)
Breastfeeding into the toddler years.
3)
Family history of lipid abnormalities.
4)
Family history of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Question 17 0 / 2 points
In caring for a patient with symptomatic gastroesophageal reflux, you prescribe a PPI to:
Question options:
1)
enhance motility.
2)
increase the pH of the stomach.
3)
reduce lower esophageal pressure.
4)
help limit H. pylori growth.
Question 18 0 / 2 points
Which of the following criteria should be met for a child to be treated for AOM with observation and analgesia but no antimicrobial therapy? Select all that apply.
Question options:
1)
Age greater than 6 months.
2)
Bilateral infection.
3)
Moderate illness.
4)
Presumptively caused by bacterial infection.
Question 19 2 / 2 points
Gina is 2 years old and presents with a 3-day history of fever, crankiness, and congested cough. Her respiratory rate is more than 50% of the upper limits of normal for age. Tubular breath sounds are noted at the right lung base. Skin turgor is normal, and she is wearing a wet diaper. She is alert, resisting the examination as age appropriate, and engages in eye contact. Temperature is 38.3° C (101° F). Gina’s diagnostic evaluation should include:
Question options:
1)
chest x-ray.
2)
urine culture and sensitivity measurement.
3)
lumbar puncture.
4)
sputum culture.
Question 20 0 / 2 points
All of the following are components of the classic ophthalmological emergency except:
Question options:
1)
eye pain.
2)
purulent discharge.
3)
red eye.
4)
new onset change in visual acuity.
Question 21 2 / 2 points
At which of the following ages in an infant’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about teething most helpful?
Question options:
1)
1–2 months.
2)
2–4 months.
3)
4–6 months.
4)
8–10 months.
Question 22 2 / 2 points
Aortic stenosis in a 15-year-old male is most likely:
Question options:
1)
a sequela of rheumatic fever.
2)
a result of a congenital defect.
3)
calcific in nature.
4)
found with atrial septal defect.
Question 23 2 / 2 points
The gastric parietal cells produce:
Question options:
1)
hydrochloric acid.
2)
a protective mucosal layer.
3)
prostaglandins.
4)
prokinetic hormones.
Question 24 0 / 2 points
A healthy infant at age 9–11 months is expected to:
Question options:
1)
roll from back to stomach.
2)
imitate “bye-bye.”
3)
play peek-a-boo.
4)
hand toy on request.
Question 25 2 / 2 points
When advising a patient about injectable influenza immunization, the nurse practitioner (NP) considers the following about the use of this vaccine:
Question options:
1)
Its use is not recommended in sickle cell anemia.
2)
Its use is limited to children older than 2 years.
3)
Its use is limited due to containing live virus.
4)
Its use is recommended for virtually all members of the population.
Question 26 0 / 2 points
At which of the following ages in a young child’s life is parental anticipatory guidance about using “time out” as a discipline method most helpful?
Question options:
1)
12–18 months.
2)
18–24 months.
3)
24–30 months.
4)
30–36 months.
Question 27 0 / 2 points
Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae usually causes:
Question options:
1)
a diffuse rash.
2)
meningitis.
3)
pseudomembranous pharyngitis.
4)
a gastroenteritis-like illness.
Question 28 2 / 2 points
A healthy 2-year-old child is able to:
Question options:
1)
speak in phrases of two or more words.
2)
throw a ball at a target.
3)
scribble spontaneously.
4)
ride a tricycle.
Question 29 0 / 2 points
A Still murmur:
Question options:
1)
is heard in the presence of cardiac pathology.
2)
has a humming or vibratory quality.
3)
is a reason for denying sports participation clearance.
4)
can become louder when the patient is standing.
Question 30 0 / 2 points
Which of the following imaging studies potentially exposes the patient being evaluated for abdominal pain to the lowest ionizing radiation burden?
Question options:
1)
Ultrasound.
2)
Barium enema.
3)
CT scan.
4)
Abdominal flat plate.
Question 31 2 / 2 points
You are examining an 18-month-old boy who is not speaking any discernible words. Mom tells you he has not said “mama or dada” yet or babbled or smiled responsively. You:
Question options:
1)
encourage the mother to enroll her son in daycare to increase his socialization.
2)
conduct further evaluation of milestone attainment.
3)
reassure the parent that delayed speech is common in boys.
4)
order audiogram and tympanometry.
Question 32 0 / 2 points
Which of the following is true about the MMR vaccine?
Question options:
1)
This vaccine contains live virus.
2)
Its use is contraindicated in persons with a history of egg allergy.
3)
Revaccination of an immune person is associated with risk of allergic reaction.
4)
One dose is recommended for young adults who have not been previously immunized.
Question 33 2 / 2 points
A young child should use a rear-facing car seat until at least age:
Question options:
1)
12 months.
2)
18 months.
3)
24 months.
4)
30 months.
Question 34 2 / 2 points
Which of the following findings is most consistent with the diagnosis of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS)?
Question options:
1)
Upper respiratory tract infection symptoms persisting beyond 7 to 10 days.
2)
Mild midfacial fullness and tenderness.
3)
Preauricular lymphadenopathy.
4)
Marked eyelid edema.
Question 35 0 / 2 points
Treatment options for streptococcal pharyngitis for a patient with penicillin allergy include all of the following except:
Question options:
1)
azithromycin.
2)
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
3)
clarithromycin.
4)
clindamycin.